Had they lived in the same moment of history, Spanish writers like Columbus and English writers like Harriot would likely have viewed each other as implacable imperial enemies, yet both nevertheless shared a peculiar similarity.  Neither expressed any malice toward Native Americans, yet both justified the infliction of violence on a massive scale against Native Americans.  How was it possible for this kind of aggressive violence to become normal in Spain, England, and other European countries, without any malice toward the targets of that violence?  Violence motivated by malice is perhaps comprehensible, but how do you explain this intensity of violence without malice?