Why do Bard and Anderson say speech to children tends to be less
intelligible than speech to adults?
Paradoxically, they argue that this might actually benefit children.
How?
Were the children in Bard & Anderson's experiment 3 clairvoyant? Somehow
the information about the original context (referent present or absent)
got preserved in the acoustic signal, and children were able to extract
this information in the current context they were in (toys present or
absent)? [Interestingly, this is not a simple effect of clarity (because
then toys absent would have been easier across all conditions)]
Can we imagine what kind of acoustic information "does the trick" for the
children?
Have Bard and Anderson correctly hypothesized the role of
accented/de-accented contrast in speech? Is there necessarily
a problem with the the hypothesis that parents pronounce object
names differently when the referent is available?
If children will seek out novel objects when confronted with a novel word,
what kind of behavior would be expected when they encounter a familiar word
with lowered intelligibility?
Bates et al.
What do Bates et al. mean by the "confound between developmental
and stylistic aspects of referential style"? Given the confound,
how do they show that there are in fact significant
individual differences?
Why are individual differences interesting? What does it tell us about
language development?
Bates et al. have demonstrated "robust individual differences in the early
stages of language development" (p119), but overall they found clear
and robust patterns and trends in the kinds of words acquired and in the
order and timing of this acquisition. Don't these patterns in fact suggest
that language is innate and triggered in a specific order (with a bit of of
variability reflecting the small role of environment)?
In Bates, et. al, what are the possible explanations for the
holistic vs. analytical differences in children? Is it necessarily
a internal difference or could external factors explain the
differences?
What might the observation that children show a great deal of variation in
early word choice suggest to an innateness paradigm in child language
acquisition?
In other work by Bates (specifically on aphasics), she argues that
certain parts of the brain have a propensity for language over others,
but that language is not as localized as we have thought. How do the
observations made in the present article lend support to this argument?
How would Bates' proposed lexicon shift across time from reference, to
predication, then to grammar interrelate with increasing length of utterances
with age?
Bates et. al. report that children can vary greatly in the early stages of
language development; Fernald & Morikawa report different speech styles
with American & Japanese mothers when talking to their infants; children
learn many words with minimal feedback. What does this tell us about the
role of the adult in teaching children? What things matter and what
things do not? How does this relate to studies in which mothers have been
shown to act differently with an infant when they are told the gender is
male or female? (i.e., is this something that does matter?)
Last updated: 4 March 1997
URL: http://www.indiana.edu/~gasser/L700/0304q.html
Comments: gasser@cs.indiana.edu